When I went on holiday earlier this year to visit some friends in Spain, something very strange happened: while one of them was showing me a picture, another asked us "Haber?" (to have?). We both looked at him for a second, them my friend showing the picture realised he said "A ver" (let’s see). I found it odd that neither me nor my native spanish buddy could hear the difference between haber and a ver. Is this normal, or are we both deaf?
It’s totally normal.
As you know, H is silent in Spanish (except when after C). Most Spanish speakers pronounce V and B the same way so how could you know what he was talking about if not in context?
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It’s totally normal.
As you know, H is silent in Spanish (except when after C). Most Spanish speakers pronounce V and B the same way so how could you know what he was talking about if not in context?
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It’s completely normal, since not only they pronounce them the same way (B and V), but sometimes, even spell the words wrong…
A lot of people write down "haber" when trying to mean "a ver"
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native spanish speaker
These sort of misunderstandings happen in every language, especially in French..
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